PSY 428 Week 5 Individual Review of Chapters 1-16
PSY428 REVIEW OF CHAPTERS 1-15 Guide
1. The field of organizational psychology began to take its present shape in the _____.
a) 1870s
b) early 1900s
c) 1950s
d) early 1800s
2. Organizational psychologists collect data most frequently using ____________.
a) survey research
b) one-on-one interviews
c) under-cover agents
d) none of the above
3. The transitioning process by which a new hire becomes a productive member of an organization is known in organizational psychology as:
a) organizational integration
b) organizational socialization
c) new-hire trauma
d) group cohesion
4. Which of the following is not true regarding realistic job previews?
a) They should only provide applicants with positive information
b) They may lower applicants’ expectations of a job
c) They may reduce turnover
d) They can facilitate newcomer socialization
5. Employee behaviors that are not required under a formal job description (e.g., altruism, general courtesy) are known in organizational psychology as _______.
a) Organizational personal behaviors
b) Organizational citizenship behaviors
c) Person-in-organization behaviors
d) Extra-organizational behaviors
6. An evaluation of the results of an employee’s actual performance on the job is the evaluation of that employee’s ________.
a) Productivity
b) Utility
c) Value
d) Effectiveness
7. Job satisfaction has been shown to correlate with many other variables, but its strongest relationship appears to be with ___________.
a) employee attitudes
b) employee behaviors
c) employee emotions
d) organizational profit
8. The three most commonly researched forms of organizational commitment are referred to as _____________.
a) continuance, affective, and normative
b) regular, neutral, and super
c) heavy, moderate, and light
d) entering, staying, leaving
9. Choose the best definition of counterproductive organizational behavior.
a) Behavior that slows an employee down on the job.
b) Behavior that runs against the goals of an organization.
c) Behavior that prevents an employee from being effective.
d) Behavior determined by market pressures.
10. Time lost and frequency measures are most commonly used to evaluate which of the following counterproductive behaviors?
a) turnover
b) theft
c) absenteeism
d) sexual harassment
11. Organizational psychologists commonly refer to “good” and “bad” turnover as which of the following?
a) optimal and dysfunctional
b) acceptable and unacceptable
c) hiring and firing
d) healthy and unhealthy
12. Occupational health and stress are influenced by _____________ factors.
a) psychosocial
b) socio-cognitive
c) psychopersonal
d) indicological
13. Researchers who focus mainly on the negative effects of workplace stress are likely adhering to which of the following approaches to occupational stress?
a) humanistic
b) medical
c) clinical/counseling
d) engineering
14. Which of the following terms is defined as an aspect of the work or job environment for which an employee may need to adapt or change?
a) strain
b) stress
c) stressor
d) goal
15. _____ role overload is due to the amount of demands; ________ role overload is due to the perceived difficulty of those demands by a particular employee.
a) work; emotion
b) subjective; objective
c) quantitative; qualitative
d) physical; perceptual
16. Motivation is best described in terms of a person’s __________.
a) needs
b) cognitive processes
c) behaviors
d) all of the above can be useful in describing a person’s motivation
17. The theory of motivation that is based on the perceived fairness of transactional relationships between individuals and organizations is ______________.
a) Equality theory
b) Equity theory
c) Egalitarian theory
d) Balance theory
18. Within expectancy theory, a person’s belief that his/her performance will lead to a particular outcome is known as _____________.
a) Expectancy
b) Valence
c) Instrumentality
d) Belief
19. Which of the following theories of motivation views motivation as an ongoing process of monitoring, comparison with a standard, and adjustments to ensure progress is being made?
a) Social cognitive theory
b) Control theory
c) Discrepancy theory
d) Equity theory
20 Which of the following is not a necessary condition for an effective performance-based merit pay system?
a) Accurate measurement/documentation of employee performance
b) Fair administration of performance-based pay decisions
c) Merit pay increases large enough to be meaningful to employees
d) All of the above are critical
21. Which of the following is the most legitimate reason why executive salaries tend to be so much higher than other employees’ salaries?
a) Executives always have more experience than other workers.
b) Executive decisions can dramatically impact an organization’s survival.
c) Salary is the only motivator that can be used with executives.
d) High salaries are needed to recruit executives to high positions.
22. “Vertical loading” refers to which of the following job design strategies?
a) demand reduction
b) role clarification
c) job enrichment
d) interdependence building
23. “Great leaders are born, not made.” This statement reflects which of the following perspectives on leadership?
a) Behavioral
b) Trait
c) Cognitive
d) Emotional
24. A ____________ theory of leadership highlights the influence of situational factors on a leader’s behaviors.
a) environmental
b) multi-factorial
c) contingency
d) scenario
25. A __________ leader influences subordinates by inspiration; a ____________ leader by behavioral principles of reward and punishment.
a) good; bad
b) transformational; transactional
c) transforming; restoring
d) internal; external
26. A person’s potential to influence others is viewed in organizational psychology as _________.
a) Power
b) Influence
c) Leadership
d) Strength
27. The process by which roles develop and role expectations are communicated to group members is known as ____________.
a) role definition
b) role differentiation
c) role refinement
d) plan-setting
28. Team effectiveness is often conceptualized in terms of an I-P-O model. This stands for which of the following?
a) Interdependence-Process-Orientation
b) Input-Perspective-Outcome
c) Input-Process-Output
d) Interest-Principle-Output
29. What phenomenon is occurring when a team member demonstrates less effort in the team than he/she would if working alone?
a) social loafing
b) social resting
c) diffusion of effort
d) separation of responsibility
30. ________ occurs when team members build upon each other’s ideas to produce something greater than would be possible by combining the contributions of individual members.
a) sharing
b) synergy
c) development
d) extension
31. Viewing an organization as a series of subsystems that interact with each other and the external environment fits with which common organizational metaphor?
a) organization as biological organism
b) organization as machine
c) organization as brain
d) organization as a computer
32. An organization with many levels and highly specialized departments is probably based on which organizational theory?
a) humanistic
b) classical
c) mechanistic
d) biological
33. A successful organization in a newly emerging sector is likely to have a __________ organizational structure.
a) round
b) triangular
c) flat
d) narrow
34. A _____________ structure typically involves the simultaneous existence of two separate organizational structures.
a) matrix
b) cross-over
c) interlinking
d) hierarchical
35. A ______ manager is likely to closely supervise employees, while a ________ manager is likely to allow workers more freedom to seek innovative solutions to organizational problems.
a) Type A; Type B
b) Theory X; Theory Y
c) Type Z; Type X
d) hands-on; hands-up
36. _________ are features of an organization’s physical environment that have some sort of culture meaning.
a) artifacts
b) symbols
c) values
d) signs
37. Acts, objects, relationships, or language that have meaning and motivational value within an organization are considered ____________ of that organization’s culture.
a) artifacts
b) symbols
c) components
d) marks
38. The yearly recognition of an organization’s highest performers at a company-wide gala is an example of a __________.
a) ritual
b) tangible reward
c) rite
d) artifact
39. An organizational culture serves which two major functions, according to Schein?
a) vertical integration and temporal stabilization
b) external adaptation and internal integration
c) strategic realism and evolutionary reactivity
d) internal response and external response
40. The use of observational and qualitative data collection methods to evaluate an organization’s culture is an example of which of the following research methods?
a) socio-organizational inquiry
b) group study
c) ethnography
d) culture profiling
41. An early individual-level organization development technique involving unstructured group sessions focused on interpersonal interactions is known as ______________.
a) a T-group
b) a training corp.
c) a action lab
d) a connection group
42. Lewin’s three-step model of organizational change is which of the following?
a) change-evaluate-reset
b) unfreezing-transformation-refreezing
c) identifying-modifying-continuing
d) pausing-changing-restarting
43. _____________ Theory suggests that organizations use materials from the environment, create something with those materials, and return the products to the environment in a dynamic fashion.
a) General Systems
b) Recyclical
c) Karma
d) I-P-O
44. Form of consulting and organization development that focuses on how things are done, rather than what is actually done.
a) End consulting
b) Client-centered consulting
c) Process consulting
d) Means consulting
45. The most widely used organization-level intervention for organizational development is ______.
a) survey feedback
b) team training
c) computer-based skills training
d) focus groups
